Posted by hanya on October 15, 1999 at 09:10:35:
In Reply to: Are Ukrainians Tatars? Q: to Hanya posted by Mikle on October 13, 1999 at 21:10:17:
: If Ukrainians are not Russians, as explained by Hanya, perhaps, they are Tatars. Isn't it true that Chingeez Khan occupied Kyjev's Russia for 300 yr.?
According to your interpretation of the paradigm, Ukrainians must be "occupying" Russian lands. Is that the way you see it? And how can 300 years of occupation outweigh 1000+ years of exsistence? Or did you mean that the Russians are Tatars? Now there's an argument that might be made.
FYI, it was Kyievan Rus', not "Kyjev's Russia" as you stated. There was no "Russia" (Rossiya) at the time of Genghis Khan's occupation, only "Muscovy". In fact, it was under the occupation of the Golden Horde that Muscovy came to power -- the Moscow princes paid homage to the invaders and power was their reward.